Date: Sat Oct 13 2001 - 07:38:52 EDT
I once remember reading that in Attic Greek, hO EMOS PATHR (with the possessive adjective) was stylistically more formal than hO PATHR MOU. In reading Jesus' use of hO PATHR MOU hO GEWRGOS ESTIN in Jn 15:1 and EN TOUTWi EDOXASQH hO PATHR MOU in Jn 15:8, I wonder if this stylistic distinction still obtained in the first century CE. Any thoughts on this matter?
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