From: Harry W. Jones (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Sun Oct 14 2001 - 14:19:22 EDT
Dear Ted,Paul and Clay,
IMHO Jesus was simply trying to reassure his disciples by his
use of EN as well as EIS. That is, reasuring anyone already
"in" him that they would be saved vs someone who had not yet
believe "into" him. This might be simplistic but I just don't
see any other reason myself for him using EV and then EIS.
> Greetings friends:
> Is it significant that John uses EN AUTWi, in Jn. 3:15, but EIS AUTON in the
> following verse, even though the phrases are otherwise so similar? That is,
> is something meant by the first reference that is not meant by the second?
> I understand the textbook difference between the prepositions, but I also
> understand that such differences are often treated too rigidly. What's the
> case here? Thanks.
> Dr. Theodore H. Mann
B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek
You are currently subscribed to b-greek as: [email@example.com]
To unsubscribe, forward this message to leave-b-greek-327Q@franklin.oit.unc.edu
To subscribe, send a message to firstname.lastname@example.org
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Sat Apr 20 2002 - 15:37:09 EDT