From: Carl W. Conrad (email@example.com)
Date: Tue Nov 06 2001 - 05:39:03 EST
I think Carlton intended this for the list.
>Date: Mon, 5 Nov 2001 21:43:50 EST
>Subject: Re: [b-greek] Re: In 1 Cor 14:26-33 men are meant
>In a message dated 11/5/01 2:47:10 PM Central Standard Time,
>> At 7:24 PM +0100 11/5/01, C.A. (Kees) Langeveld wrote:
>> >The frequent use of masculine nouns such as hEKASTOS, hEIS, hEAUTWi,
>> >DIERMHNEUTHS etc. in 1 Cor. 14:26-33, which deals with speaking in the
>> >churchmeetings, together with the fact that in vers 34-35 women are said
>> >refrain from speaking in the churchmeetings, provide a valid argument for
>> >the thesis that in 1 Cor 14:26-33 men are meant or thought of. In other
>> >words, 1 Cor 14:34-35 provides a reason for taking those nouns as
>> >non-generic, that is, as referring to men only.
>> >Carl W. Conrad has given me his opinion on this matter. I would like to
>> >other optinions and arguments.
>> I too welcome alternative opinions and arguments (so long as they stick to
>> what the Greek text is saying), but lest there be any question of what I
>> responded, here it is:
>> At 2:03 PM -0500 11/3/01, Carl W. Conrad wrote:
>> > ... I would say
>> >that all of these masculine pronouns (hEKASTOS, hEIS, hEAUTWi, ALLWi) and
>> >even the noun DIERMHNEUTHS are generic--there is no reason to suppose that
>> >any one of them can only refer to a male person.
>It seems very difficult for English students (especially American) to get a
>feel for the Greek use of gender. If any pronoun, adjective, participle, etc.
>might include a man, they used the masculine. The masculine gender by itself
>in such words does not rule out women unless the context makes it clear that
>only men were referred to. I see nothing in the context of this passage that
>rules out women, certainly not vss. 34-35. So, the feminine form of such
>words generally ruled out men but the masculine does not rule out women.
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