From: One of the McKays (email@example.com)
Date: Wed Nov 07 2001 - 05:01:33 EST
The simple explanation is that the word AGAPAW is used generally of love in
the Scriptures and not as a special "AGAPH love" as we have been told.
It is also used of the Pharisees who loved the praise of men, of Demas who
loved this present world, and more or less interchangeably with the verb
For instance John likes to call himself "the disciple whom Jesus loved."
Sometimes he uses AGAPAW and sometimes FILEW.
> When describing Amnon's incestuous relationship with
> his 1/2 sister Tamar, the LXX uses AGAPAW.
> Seems odd to me. Anyone have an explanation for this?
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