From: Rick Duggin (email@example.com)
Date: Mon Nov 12 2001 - 12:30:51 EST
While reading 1 Pt.3 this morning, the number of modifiers between
the article and the noun in verse 3 prompted a question.
hWN ESTW OUC hO EXWQEN EMPLOKHS TRICWN KAI
PEREQESEWS CRUSIWN H ENDUSEWS hIMATIWN KOSMOS
A.T.Robertson calls this use of the article "quite Thucydidean"
I was taught that there are three ways in which Greek and Latin
writers emphasize a word:
1. Put it at the beginning of a sentence or clause.
2. Put it at the end of a sentence or clause.
3. Insert modifiers between the adjective (or article in Greek) and
If a Greek writer shows emphasis by separating the noun from its
would he show MORE emphasis by increasing the number of modifiers?
E.g., "...THE outward of arranging the hair, and of wearing gold, or of
on of apparel ADORNMENT."
Surely this extended separation of article and noun gives greater
than hO KRUPTOS THS KARDIAS ANQRWPOS in verse 4; or am I
totally off the wall?
Thanks in advance for your comments.
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