[b-greek] Re: Galatians 2:1

From: Carl W. Conrad (cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu)
Date: Sun Nov 18 2001 - 09:22:03 EST

At 1:33 PM +0000 11/18/01, Keith Thompson wrote:
> Thanks for clearing up the problem with DIA DEKATESSARWN ETWN. The
>translation which didn't say 'after fourteen years' translates most
>idioms literally (Green's Literal Translation) and had 'through fourteen
> So is it definitely or only probably an idiomatic usage here? Is it
>possible it could mean 'during fourteen years'? I was looking at 1:18,
>for variety both a different verb and a different phrase are used? Or
>does DIA+genitive of time always mean 'after'?

Actually the META + accusative is closer to the literal English "after ...".

It occurred to me after dispatching the message yesterday that I should
have added a note such as I did when this came up one other time: the DIA +
genitive construction is closer to the English sort of expression, "I'll be
back in a week" or "I'll be back in seven days"; German has something like
"heute in acht Tagen"--all of which expressions indicate or imply an
interval of time preceding the anticipated action; they may or may not
indicate both terminals but there's an implicit interval between two
points, after which the action will or has taken place.

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
Most months: 1647 Grindstaff Road/Burnsville, NC 28714/(828) 675-4243
cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu OR cwconrad@ioa.com
WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/

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