From: Harry W. Jones (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Fri Nov 23 2001 - 00:31:47 EST
I will try to finally answer your question.
When we have DIA + Genitive of time it can mean either *after* or
*during* depending upon the context. And as Carl indicated
the context of the Aorist verb indicates *after* and not *during*.
This information is in both Semantic Domains by Louw & Nida and also
in BADG by Arndt Gingrich. Also it's in Moule's Idiom book.
> I see my question has generated a bit of interest, but I'm still
> confused and left without an answer. (B-Greek has been very helpful but
> sometimes I find people answer questions I haven't asked and don't
> answer the questions I ask.)
> If Paul had wanted to say 'during/throughout fourteen years' how would
> he have written it? I would expect exactly what's written in Galatians
> 2:1. And I'm still not sure whether this form is always an idiom meaning
> 'after' or sometimes literally means 'during' or 'throughout'.
> Thanks again for any help.
> EN CRISTWi,
> Keith Thompson (Manchester, UK)
> Email: email@example.com
> Mobile email: firstname.lastname@example.org
> Keith Thompson
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