From: Carl W. Conrad (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Thu Nov 29 2001 - 14:12:09 EST
>Date: Thu, 29 Nov 2001 10:57:26 -0800
>Subject: Re: [b-greek] perfect tense in I Cor. 7: 15
>From: Denny A Diehl <email@example.com>
>I'm afraid I didn't express myself very well.
No, and I think I'm going to shunt this right back to the list for others
to respond to. Seems to me that we've discussed this several times in the
>> >I would like to again receive B-Greek. Also I have a question
>> >about the perfect tense found in 1 Cor 7:15:
>> >OU DEDOULWTAI
>> As this is an indicative, the OU simply negates the assertion; the
>> force of the perfect tense is the standard one here, I think: it is
>> indicates the status now as a consequence of completed action: OU
>> DEDOULWTAI hO ADELFOS H hH ADELFH EN TOIS TOIOUTOIS. "The
>> brother-or sister-in-faith does not stand enslaved in such
>Does the use of the perfect indicate what the past action was?
>Since the perfect is a completion of past action, then what is the
>past action of which the "not under bondage"? Two possibilities
>as I can ascertain are:
>1) could it be the marriage bond? Since the perfect tense is used,
>would that exclude consideration of the marriage bond since the
>believer is "not under bondage" or "not under the marriage bond"
>since the believer was under the marriage bond previous to the
>desertion? Could that be possible with the perfect tense negated?
>or 2) would it have to mean some kind of obligation to follow
>the unbeliever around since before the desertion the believer
>was obligated to do, but now with the desertion, the believer
>is no longer under such an obligation?
>What is necessitated as the past action by use of the perfect
>tense in 1 Cor 7:15? Anything?
>All the best.
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