From: Iver Larsen (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Fri Nov 30 2001 - 03:51:45 EST
> "Sometimes the article is equivalent to a relative pronoun in *force*.
> This is especially true when it is repeated after a noun before a
> phrase(e.g.,a gen. phrase)." He then gives 1 Cor. 1:18 as an example. He
> gives Luke 7:32, Acts 15:1, Phil. 3:9 and Jas.2:7 as illustrations as well
> as a number of references too well.
> Best Regards,
> Harry Jones
Thank you, Harry.
Since this is a recognized feature of Greek, one can at least consider it
for Lk 18:13. It is easy to recognize the relative "force" of the article in
those constructions where English has to use a relative pronoun, but more
difficult where English may, but does not have to use a relative pronoun,
like Lk 18:13. My approach is to try to study the Greek data on their own
terms, as far as that is possible. That is what descriptive linguistics aims
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