Date: Fri Nov 30 2001 - 10:42:06 EST
In a message dated 11/30/01 2:51:12 AM, email@example.com writes:
>> "Sometimes the article is equivalent to a relative pronoun in *force*.
>> This is especially true when it is repeated after a noun before a
>> phrase(e.g.,a gen. phrase)." He then gives 1 Cor. 1:18 as an example. He
>> gives Luke 7:32, Acts 15:1, Phil. 3:9 and Jas.2:7 as illustrations as well
>> as a number of references too well.
>> Best Regards,
>> Harry Jones
>Thank you, Harry.
>Since this is a recognized feature of Greek, one can at least considerit
>for Lk 18:13. It is easy to recognize the relative "force" of the article in
>those constructions where English has to use a relative pronoun, but more
>difficult where English may, but does not have to use a relative pronoun,
>like Lk 18:13. My approach is to try to study the Greek data on their own
>terms, as far as that is possible. That is what descriptive linguistics
>aims to do.
James Brooks and I also allowed for a category of the article used as a
pronoun, but the more I think of it, the more I think such is unneccessary.
One of our egs was Matt. 26:28. TOUTO ESTIN TO hAIMA MOU THS
DIAQHKHS *TO* PERI POLLWN EKCUNNOMENON EIS AFESIN hAMARTIWN.
Now, it could be argued that the participle, EKCUNNOMENON, serves as
the verb of the "relative" clause, but I think it suffices to say that the
second article agreeing with hAIMA simply puts everything following it
into an attributive position to hAIMA. Relative clauses have finite verbs
expressed or understood, so I would be more convinced if we could
find an article introducing a clause with a finite verb. Since there are
two modifiers of hAIMA, MOU and THS DIAQHKHS, the use of the
following article is the only way to express this attribution. Could this
be one more of the categories that have gotten into the grammars but
needs to be taken out?
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