From: Mark Wilson (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Thu Feb 07 2002 - 14:29:45 EST
>A question: At John 8:58 we read: EIPEN AUTOIS IHSOUS AMHN AMHN LEGW
>hUMIN PRIN ABRAAM GENESQAI EGW EIMI.
>A few verses later, at John 9:9 we read: ALLOI ELEGON hOTI hOUTOS ESTIN
>ALLOI ELEGON OUCI ALLA hOMOIOS AUTWi ESTIN EKEINOS ELEGEN hOTI EGW EIMI.
>So, though the contexts are different, does EGW EIMI mean the same thing
>in each instance, and should it be translated in the same way?
This question could have some validity to it if one were
a first year Greek student. However...
One will translate these passages based on his or her
theological predisposition. Greek grammar or syntax
will never overrule one's theological system.
In other words, our theological position is King of the Mountain;
all passages of the GNT are subservient to our King. A
Calvinist, for example, will ascribe meaning to a passage based
on his or her Calvinistic theology. Calvinism is chosen as a
theological position at the volitional level; it is not the
by-product of grammatical and syntactical analysis. The same
would be true of non-Calvinistic positions.
Because we pick our theological positions at the
volitional level, questions of this nature, by definition,
will never prove beneficial.
You might want to consider re-wording the question to avoid
the various religions out here from defending themselves. We
all know each others arguments.
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