From: Scott Ogden (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Sat Feb 09 2002 - 09:55:41 EST
Hello. This is my first post to this very helpful list. I was wondering
if someone could address a question of mine that (as a novice) I have not
been able to answer with the limited resources I have.
The following is from Wallace's "Beyond the Basics" text:
B. Genitive Absolute
In defining the genitive absolute participial construction, we have two
options: We can define it structurally or we can definite it semantically.
We shall in fact define it both ways in order that you might be able to
identify the construction and, once identified, understand its semantic
Structurally, the genitive absolute consists of the following:
1) a noun or pronoun in the genitive case (though this is sometimes
2) a genitive anarthrous participle (always);
3) the entire construction at the front of a sentence (usually).
Semantically, there are again three items to notice, once the structure
has been identified (note that the above stated structure is not limited
to the genitive absolute construction):
1) This construction is unconnected with the rest of the sentence (i.e.,
its subject-the genitive noun or pronoun-is different from the subject of
the main clause);
2) the participle is always adverbial (circumstantial) or, at least,
dependent-verbal (i.e., it cannot be an adjectival or substantival
3) the participle is normally (about 90% of the time) temporal,
though it can on occasion express any of the adverbial ideas.
Wallace then gives several references in, among other places, Matthew 9.
While going through that chapter I happened along verses 27 and 28 which
read, in part: (27) KAI PARAGONTI EKEIQEN TWi IHSOU HKOULOUQHSAN DUO
TUFLOI.... (28) ELQONTI DE EIS THN OIKIAN PROSHLQON AUTWi hOI TUFLOI...
My question: would the two dative participial clauses beginning each of
these sentences not, in fact, qualify (under Wallace's structural _and_
semantic conditions) as "dative absolutes"? I could find nothing in any
of the grammars in my possession to indicate that such an absolute form
for the dative even exists, but the grammar of these two clauses in
Matthew 9.27-28, as far as I can tell, fits the requirements.
Thank you in advance for your input !!
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