From: dan and rach (email@example.com)
Date: Tue Feb 12 2002 - 06:21:45 EST
----- Original Message -----
From: "Carl W. Conrad" <firstname.lastname@example.org>
To: "Biblical Greek" <email@example.com>
Cc: "Biblical Greek" <firstname.lastname@example.org>
Sent: Monday, February 11, 2002 12:38 PM
Subject: [b-greek] Re: JOHN 10:17-18 and the active take or passive receive
> At 6:12 AM -0500 2/11/02, Edward Otte wrote:
> >I have a question concerning the active or passive duality of a verb use
> >in many places in the Bible. I am refering to the verb that can be
> >transliterated "take" or "receive." The verb appears in John 10:17-18
> >where I have seen it transliterated both ways in several translations. To
> >be sure, the difference between an active take to a passive receive does
> >change the meaning of at least this verse. Is there some rule or
> >grammatical understanding to how to transliterate? Is it just by context
> >and thus more subjective?
> I think you are confused about the meaning of "transliteration" etc.....
When I first rad the original question, my eyes moved to the AIREI, which
presumably could also have been <transliterated> as hAIREI and thus have a
slightly different meaning. That was what I thought the question referred to
initially. What has led to the NA27 orthography here, or is the 3pers.sing.
of hAIREW not hAIREI ?
thanks for any comments,
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