[b-greek] Re: Why does IAKWBOS --> James?

From: John H. Jenkins (jenkins@apple.com)
Date: Tue Feb 12 2002 - 14:02:44 EST


On Tuesday, February 12, 2002, at 10:08 AM, Percer, Leo wrote:

> Ok, so I tested the archives, but had a tough time narrowing the search
> to the topic at hand. Any suggestions? Oh, and it may be apocryphal,
> but I was under the impression that IAKWBOS is translated James in honor
> of King James, he of the Authorized Version of the Bible in English.
> Does anyone have verification of this vague memory of mine?

This is definitely false. Tyndale, for example, is already calling people
James a century before the KJV. My understanding is that the name is
coming to English via two different routes, one more-or-less directly from
Hebrew/Greek and the other via French. I do not have the details, alas.

John H. Jenkins

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