[b-greek] Re: Why does IAKWBOS --> James?

From: B. D. Colt (babc2@attbi.com)
Date: Wed Feb 13 2002 - 01:30:38 EST

On 12 Feb 02, at 12:02, John H. Jenkins wrote:

> On Tuesday, February 12, 2002, at 10:08 AM, Percer, Leo wrote:
> > Ok, so I tested the archives, but had a tough time narrowing the
> > search to the topic at hand. Any suggestions? Oh, and it may be
> > apocryphal, but I was under the impression that IAKWBOS is
> > translated James in honor of King James, he of the Authorized
> > Version of the Bible in English. Does anyone have verification of
> > this vague memory of mine?
> >
> >
> This is definitely false. Tyndale, for example, is already calling
> people James a century before the KJV. My understanding is that the
> name is coming to English via two different routes, one more-or-less
> directly from Hebrew/Greek and the other via French. I do not have
> the details, alas.
Now, tell us where the spaniards got 'Diego.'

Barbara D. Colt, mailto:babc2@attbi.com
St John the Evangelist, San Francisco

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