From: Byron & Linetta Knutson (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Wed Feb 20 2002 - 01:05:37 EST
> PRWTON then modifies the underlying semantic verb SWiZW from SWTHRIAN, not
> the whole sentence. The Jews are first in line to be saved. When they have
> had their chance, the offer is extended to the Gentiles. That is the
> strategy laid down by Jesus and followed by Paul.
Two comment that come to mind here:
1. First of all, this does not say: "..to the Jew...to the Gentile", but
".. to the Jew... to the Greek". Paul knew well the word 'Gentile' and used
it (about 30 times in Romans alone, cp Rom 1:13). The word "Greek(s)" occurs
about 6 different times in Romans.)
2. Wouldn't it seem more likely that Paul is using PRWTON as an adjective.
The FIRST THING for a Jew and for a Greek is that they must believe the
gospel. If you will remember 1 Corinthians 1:22 For the Jews require a
sign, and the Greeks seek after wisdom: This was the FIRST THING A JEW
WANTED - A SIGN, AND A GREEK LOOKED FOR WISDOM. If I remember correctly,
Lenski in his commentary said basically this very thing, for what its worth.
Just my couple of thoughts, but I can't see that "Greek" and "Gentile" are
strictly equivalent, especially when Paul uses the term "Gentile" so near to
hand. And while it is true that the Gospel did come first to the Jew, by
this time it didn't seem to make much difference, nor does it seem to be
Paul's emphasis here. I think he has something more important on his mind.
Well, just the thots that stop me when I read all this.
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