Date: Mon Feb 25 2002 - 00:12:12 EST
In a message dated 2/24/2002 10:28:23 PM Eastern Standard Time,
>MELLWN TE EISAGESQAI EIS THN PAREMBOLHN hO PAULOS LEGEI TWi >CILIARCWi EI
>EXESTI MOU EIPEIN TI PROS SE;
>hO DE EFH hELLHNISTI GINWSKEIS;
>OUK ARA SU EI hO AIGUPTIOS hO PRO TOUTWN TWN hHMERWN >ANASTATWSAS KAI...
>Can EFH hELLHNISTI GINWSKEIS be understood as a statement by
>the tribune, not a question?
And the idea being something like:
"You speak Greek... therefore, are you not that Egyptian...
I suppose it could be understood as a statement rather than a question.
There is no specifically interrogatory particle to indicate otherwise. It is
sometimes unclear whether something is a statement or a question. We see
examples of this in English as well. When we speak, we are alerted to
whether it is a statement or a question by the change in tone (rising or
falling on the last word or existential verb). This is absent in written
communications and can lead to unclarity regarding what is written. One of
the most famous instances that plays on this ambiguity is John 18. 37
EIPEN OUN AUTWi hO PILATOS, "OUKOUN BASILEUS EI SU?" APEKRIQH hO IHSOUS, "SU
LEGEIS hOTI BASILEUS EIMI."
Pilate's statement could be understood as "You are therefore a king."
(statement) OR "Therefore you ARE a king?" (question). OUKOUN may or may not
be an interrogative particle. Jesus' reply takes it as a statement - "You
said it." I think we all realize, however, that that would not have been
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