[b-greek] RE: imperative passive?

From: Clwinbery@aol.com
Date: Wed Feb 27 2002 - 22:11:01 EST

In a message dated 2/27/02 9:27:43 AM, William Hale Boyd <wmhboyd@aol.com>

>>>What is the force of an imperative passive verb? Sometimes I feel like
>>>must be rather thick in the head. It seems to me that if you give someone
>>>a command it would necessitate an active response on their part. Case
>>>point is SOQHTE in Acts 2:40. "Be saved" (passive) in NASV. "Save
>>>yourselves" (imperative) in KJV. How can it be both imperative and

This use of the aorist passive can simply be translated "They said,'crucify
him!" However, in the Greek the clear idea is that someone would carry out
this demand to him. It seems that this one could not be anything but passive,
given the fact that middle is out of the question. If it were 2nd person than
it could be middle.

In regard to Acts 2:40, G.B. Caird argued for what he called a non-true
passive which would be translated "Save yourselves," Clearly what Carl sees
as a middle function for these verbs of the six principal part. I think
perhaps this gets the meaning of the Greek into english. The one addressed
would be involved in the action at least in the decision making stage.

Carlton Winbery
Louisiana College

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