Date: Thu Mar 07 2002 - 10:37:51 EST
In a message dated 3/7/2002 9:20:27 AM Eastern Standard Time,
>Luke 10: 24 says in part POLLOI PROFHTAI KAI BASILEIS
>HQELHSAN IDEIN hA
>hUMEIS BLEPETE, KAI OUK EIDON, KAI AKOUSAI hA
>AKOUETE, KAI OUK HKOUSAN
>Why is IDEIN a present form and AKOUSAI an aorist. They seem to be
>completely parallel. Is this because IDEIN, though present in form,
>functions as an aorist?
both IDEIN and AKOUSAI are aorist.
It would have helped to have been hearing these forms.
Really?!! How so? I don't see how hearing it would have clarified it
whatsoever. I could, however, be wrong so please explain.
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