[b-greek] RE: 1 Timothy 4:10

From: Kevin Cauley (cauley@airmail.net)
Date: Sun Mar 10 2002 - 09:55:51 EST

Just to clarify. I do not hold the position of universal salvation. After
review of this paragraph, I can see how someone might misconstrue it that
way. My apologies to the list for not sticking with the grammar of MALISTA,
but I thought that the explanatory paragraph would help clarify what I was
trying to say regarding MALISTA itself (i.e. set, subset, etc.).

>So to apply to 1 Tim.4:10, the set is "men for whom God is savior" but the
>subset is "men for whom God is savior who believe." So I am arguing that
>the idea here is that God is the only actual savior (i.e. the act of
>salvation [the cross, etc.] was accomplished *for* both) for both
>non-believers and believers, but believers are especially saved because
>have accepted that act. This puts both non-believing men and believing men
>in the same broader category, the category of "men for whom God is savior."

Kevin Cauley

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