From: Carl W. Conrad (email@example.com)
Date: Sun Mar 10 2002 - 20:16:41 EST
At 4:26 PM -0800 3/10/02, Denny A Diehl wrote:
>Denny Diehl here
>> > The standard, at least for NT Greek, is to use the present,
>> > indicative, first singular form for lexical entries and citations.
>I have to wonder why in a list of Greek words for "Love" it
>invariably is given:
>Why is the noun form (AGAPH) and then the verb form (PHILEW)
>used instead of being uniformly the noun or verb form? Any good
>reason for that?
Invariably? In how many sources have you seen this? But if you were simply
looking for a Greek equivalent for English "love," I'd hardly be surprised,
inasmuch as "love" is both a verb and a noun, that you'd get both Greek
nouns and Greek verbs as equivalents.
Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Emeritus)
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