Date: Sun Mar 10 2002 - 21:59:55 EST
In a message dated 3/10/02 9:12:39 PM Eastern Standard Time,
"First of all when MEN . . . DE are used together, it is in that order."
Thanks for clarifying that point for me.
However, what, then, might be the significance of MEV? And does the lack of a
correlative relation between DE of verse 5 and MEV of verse 6 mean that the
reason for the 2 day delay was either because He loved Martha, her sister and
the ill Lazarus. as indicated by the KJV and the RV, or because He felt that
a delay would glorify God, more as indicated by the NEB?
Does the lack of that correlative relation mean that the NIV is over
NIV "Jesus loved Martha and her sister and Lazarus. Yet when he head that
Lazarus was sick, he stayed where he was 2 more days."
My post was not intending to question the truth of verse 4 stating that the
illness is to further the glory of God, although such a question of theodicy
is certainly valid. Only not on BGreek. BTW, the John 9.1-5 were included in
our lectionary reading for last week. Those verses certainly relate to this
My point about the unseemliness is concerning the 2 day delay, not the
question of how a just God could create a deathly illness in order to glorify
Himself, or for that matter how He could cause a new born to be blind for the
But since you brought up verse 4, I do have a grammatical question. What is
the antecedent of AUTNS?
VS 4 hAUTN hH ASQENEIA OUK ESTIV PROS QANATOV ALL' hUPER THS DOZHS TOU QEOU,
hINA DOZASQH hO hUIOS TOU QEOU DI' AUTHS.
Is the Son glorified through the illness or or through the glory of God?
Does the choice of DIA rather than hUPO impact the choice of the antecedent?
And is the imperfect HGAPA being inserted as a paranthetical comment to
explain that despite the delay Jesus still continued to love Martha and her
sister and Lazarus?
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