From: Moon-Ryul Jung (email@example.com)
Date: Wed Mar 13 2002 - 09:08:25 EST
> Yes, precisely. What I have argued is that the -QH- morphoparadigms have
> become in Hellenistic/Koine Greek pretty much "first middle-passive" in
> relation to the older MAI/SAI/TAI;MHN/SO/TO "second middle-passive"--i.e.,
> a newer standard form of middle-passive for the aorist and future that is
> increasingly displacing older "second middle-passive" morphoparadigms:
> that's the simple explanation for the equivalency of EGENETO/EGENHQH and
> APEKRINATO/APEKRIQH. And I think this is exactly what Geoffrey Horrocks is
> saying in _Greek: A History of the Language and its Speakers_, pp. 54 and
Why would only the future and aorist have the "first middle-passive"
Is it purely accidental? I know this is a question with no answers.
But I cannot resist asking it.
Moon R. Jung
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