From: Randall Buth (ButhFam@compuserve.com)
Date: Mon Mar 18 2002 - 05:28:14 EST
Richard Smith EGRAYEN:
>KAI TAUTA GRAFOMEN hHMEIS, hINA hH XARA hHMWN Hi
>In A Graded Reader of Biblical Greek, the exegetical footnote describes Hi
>PEPLHRWMENH as a periphrastic construction.
>In the text book Basics of Bible Greek, as well as Greek Grammar Beyond
>the Basics, the periphrastic construction is described as being formed
>with an indicative (non-aorist) form of EIMI.
>Can the above verse be considered a periphrastic construction? If so, how
>can the continuous historical sense of the pluperfect be translated?
First, relax and don't be overly concerned about the English labels that
on a construction. You've got the above down fine.
It is a subjunctive of "be" and a perfect passive participle. Let both have
"that it may be" (a kind of potential, continuing state)
"fulfilled" (a kind of resultant state)
And Yes, one may call that "periphrastic" because it is a
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