From: Alan B. Thomas (email@example.com)
Date: Mon Mar 25 2002 - 13:17:49 EST
--- Mark Wilson <firstname.lastname@example.org> wrote:
> EIS TO MH TACEWS SALEUQHNAI hUMAS APO TOU NOOS,
> MHTE QROEISQAI MHTE DIA PNEUMATOS
> MHTE DIA LOGOU MHTE DI' EPISTOLHS hWS DI' hHMWN
> hWS hOTI ENESTHKEN hH hHMERA TOU CRISTOU
> MH TIS hUMAS EXAPATHSHi KATA MHDENA TROPON
> hOTI EAN MH ELQHi Hh APOSTASIA PRWTON
> KAI APOKALUFQHi hO ANQRWPOS TAS hAMARTIAS
> hO hUIOS THS APWLEIAS
> According to an article I read this weekend,
> the apodosis that needs to be supplied from
> verse 2 for verse 3 should be:
> "the Day of the Lord is not present"
> (rather than, "that day shall not come")
> Since the supplied apodosis is not stated as
> such in verse 2, I am wondering how such an
> argument could be made?
> If this supplied apodosis is a possibility, then I
> a follow up question. But I will hold that for now.
> Mark Wilson
Note the following passages:
MH hO NOMOS hHMWN KRINEI TON ANQRWPON
EAN MH AKOUSHi PRWTON PAR’ AUTOU KAI
GNWi TI POIEI; [GJohn 7:51]
ALL’ OU DUNATAI OUDEIS EIS THN OIKIAN TOU ISCUROU
EISELQWN TA SKEUH AUTOU DIARPASAI
EAN MH PRWTON TON ISCURON DHSHi KAI TOTN THN OIKIAN
AUTOU DIARPASEI [GMark 3:27]
Note the Protasis in each passage contains
EAN MH and compound events (Event1 and Event2),
as well as the adverb PRWTON.
The Apodosis makes a general statement, a
present action, general rule if you will.
The adverb PRWTON indicates that both events
take place "after" the Apodosis, but that Event1
comes first, then Event2, as far as the Protasis
In your 2 Thess. passage, you have this same
So, the Day of the Lord is not present, because
in order for the Day of the Lord to be present,
Event1 Hh APOSTASIA must FIRST occur, and then
subsequent to this, the APOKALUFQHi hO ANQRWPOS
I mention this because some see here a sequence
First: Hh APOSTASIA
Next: The Day of the Lord begins
Next: APOKALUFQHi hO ANQRWPOS
What this construct in 2 Thess. may be saying is
FIRST: The Day of the Lord begins
THEN: Hh APOSTASIA
THEN: APOKALUFQHi hO ANQRWPOS
I'm still struggling with this myself, but I
think this last option has considerable merit.
This would support the idea that there are indeed
no precursory signs to the Day of the Lord. Once
the Hh APOSTASIA occurs, the Day of the Lord would
already have begun.
One also is left unfulfilled with this passage,
for why would these Thess. be concerned if the
Day of the Lord were present. That would be a
good thing.... since the return of the Lord
would be very near.
Hope this gives you more to think about.
Alan B. Thomas
"Unless God provides indisputable, verifiable evidence of His revelation to mankind,
it must be rejected at all costs...."
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