From: Trevor & Julie Peterson (firstname.lastname@example.org)
Date: Wed Apr 03 2002 - 05:33:50 EST
> is it
> true that the
> pronunciation had already evolved to what we have today in the
> time of Jesus
> and the biblical writers?
It's not easy to assess all the facets of exactly how things were pronounced
at that time, but I think most reconstructions do incorporate a lot of
features of Modern Greek. Randall Buth's system, for instance (which as I
recall isn't too far off from what Gignac thinks), uses the Modern Greek
consonantal system and a somewhat less itacized version of the vocalization.
It does distinguish between eta, iota, and upsilon, but OI=U, EI=I, and
AI=E. What I think most people agree on is that Erasmian probably doesn't
represent pronunciation in the NT era.
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