[b-greek] Re: Romans 1:16

From: c stirling bartholomew (cc.constantine@worldnet.att.net)
Date: Mon Apr 08 2002 - 23:15:10 EDT

on 4/8/02 7:03 PM, Clwinbery@aol.com wrote:

> Its news to me that verbs in Greek or English have antecedents. Pronouns have
> antecedents, but no one told me in these 52 years or high school or above
> education that verbs have antecedents in Latin, Hebrew, German, or Greek. If
> the subject of a verb is a pronoun it has an antecedent understood or
> expressed. Is this something the linquists have changed while I slept with my
> Funk three volume grammar? Clay, is this your doing?
> Carlton Winbery
> Louisiana College


You never know what linguists might be doing behind your back. They are not
trustworthy. Have you ever read any of Chomsky's other stuff
(non-linguistic)? Anyway, that is off topic.

I don't remember saying that verbs have antecedents. But when someone asks
What is the antecedent of ESTIN in Rom. 1:16? I have no trouble
understanding the question. They want to know what the anaphoric pronominal
suffix of the verb points to in the previous context. If you don't want to
call this an antecedent that is OK by me. I didn't suggest this use of the
term. Just answered the question.

Some of us with defective formal educational backgrounds (i.e., no formal
training in Greek or Latin) tend to play fast and loose with the
terminology. This drives the veteran professors up the wall but we can't
help it. We don't know any better.



Clayton Stirling Bartholomew
Three Tree Point
P.O. Box 255 Seahurst WA 98062

text for the week:


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