Colleagues,
I notice from time to time the phenomenon of an OT quote or even
allusion in the NT where a translation committee used a different
gloss. This Sunday's lectionary text includes 1Cor 10:7.
NRSV 1Cor 10:7
GenevaDo not become idolaters as some of
them did; as it is written, "The people sat down to eat and drink, and
they rose up to play."
And the GNT is ... kai anestesan paizein.
LXX has the same for Ex 32:6
Geneva0000,0000,D400But
the NRSV committee has for Ex.
32:6Genevab
and the people sat down to eat and drink, and rose up to revel.
Why not use the same gloss for paizein? The Hebrew allows for it.
They didn't even make enough effort to be consistent with the
unnecessary "they". Should this not be a consideration when creating a
translation for public consumption? It is a minor point but it helps
in making connections, though I realize the subjectivity of the
principle when applied to allusions, as exemplified in type/anti-type
biblical interpretation.
Just curious for other thoughts, really.
eirene umin,
Joe
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Joseph A. Weaks
Minister of the Word
First Christian Church (Disciples of Christ)
Spearman, TX
mailto:fccspear@ren.net
http://http://www.geocities.com/Heartland/Pointe/6638/
"Let unity be our polar star." -GMP KT
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