At 7:14 AM -0500 8/19/97, James H. Vellenga wrote: > >However, this prompts another related question which has been >nurdling around in my mind for some time. There are a few >adjectives in Koine Greek, KLHTOS and EKLEKTOS among them, >which we often find ourselves translating by English participles >-- "called" and "elect(ed)" in these cases. Moreover, they >seem almost to function semantically like participles in some >cases -- as here, where the election is "according to" and >"for the purpose of". > >It makes me wonder if etymologically these forms, seemingly >related to particular verbs, and especially with the -TOS >ending, are derived from some ancient or proto-Greek form >that actually was a participle. I.e., is it more than an >accident that we find ourselves translating these as English >participles? In a word: Yes. Andrew L. Sihler, _New Comparative Greek and Latin Grammar_, #564. "Verbals in *-to- (the Latin passive participle and the Greek verbal adjective in -TO-). These are formally identical with the Veic. pple. in -ta- and the Germanic passive participles to weak (dental preterite) verbs, as Go. fulliths = NeoEnglish filled, lagiths = NeoEnglish laid. They reflect a Proto-Indo-European verbal adj. formed with -to-, originally built directly to the zero grade root, with the consequence that the formation was insensible to the distinctions of the varioufinite stems--inchoative, causative, and others ..." Carl W. Conrad Department of Classics/Washington University One Brookings Drive/St. Louis, MO, USA 63130/(314) 935-4018 Home: 7222 Colgate Ave./St. Louis, MO 63130/(314) 726-5649 cwconrad@artsci.wustl.edu OR cconrad@yancey.main.nc.us WWW: http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/