Greetings, all you who are clearly more prepared than I for this question. I was helping my eighth graders look at the parsing of 1 John 1 and noted the phrase THN ZWHN THN AIWNION. I am not familiar with any reason for the masculine/neuter accusative for AIWNION, used as it is with a feminine noun and a feminine article. Why not AIWNIHN? I'd welcome a reference to a web-based resource that would help with similar questions and keep you intelligent people from having to snicker at my questions. By the way, I really enjoy it when I have the opportunity to try to follow a thread on this list. It helps me try to remember to think like the Greek scholar I once was. David Spotts Spottsinator@juno.com Latin, Greek and Bible teacher at Covenant School Barboursville, WV ________________________________________________________________ YOU'RE PAYING TOO MUCH FOR THE INTERNET! Juno now offers FREE Internet Access! Try it today - there's no risk! For your FREE software, visit: http://dl.www.juno.com/get/tagj. --- B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek You are currently subscribed to b-greek as: [jwrobie@mindspring.com] To unsubscribe, forward this message to leave-b-greek-327Q@franklin.oit.unc.edu To subscribe, send a message to subscribe-b-greek@franklin.oit.unc.edu