On Wed 3 Apr 2002 (13:28:32), backusfam1@bluefrognet.net wrote: > My question is in regard to John 2:23 as to the use of the dative > plural of the word Jerusalem in the Greek text. Why is this in the > plural form? In numerous other passages the singular form is used, > but for some reason he used the plural here. Can you shed some light > on this? I understand that the word Jerusalem undergoes a certain > Hellenisation, but why use a plural form as a referent? I checked the > critical apparatus in some of the Greek texts, as well as the various > Greek texts, and they all use the same plural form, so I know that it > is not a textual variant. I would appreciate any help you could > provide. Dear Vance, IMHO the simplest explanation is that the Hebrew YeRuW$aLaYiM is not the Hebrew Singular form, but the grammatical *Dual* form. As Greek does not distinguish between the Dual and the Plural Number, the Greek transcriber of "Jerusalem" makes it plural. ERRWSQE Ben -- Revd Ben Crick BA CF, and Mrs Joanna (Goodwin) Crick 232 Canterbury Road, Birchington, Kent, CT7 9TD (UK) http://www.cnetwork.co.uk/crick.htm --- B-Greek home page: http://metalab.unc.edu/bgreek You are currently subscribed to b-greek as: [jwrobie@mindspring.com] To unsubscribe, forward this message to leave-b-greek-327Q@franklin.oit.unc.edu To subscribe, send a message to subscribe-b-greek@franklin.oit.unc.edu