In the standard literary language, what is (a) the normative rule, and (b) current practice regarding the aspiration of a vowel following I'W when it means 'to their'? The handbooks I've consulted are equivocal or silent on the point, while the obvious analogies -- i.e. eu hathro, o'u hathro, therefore I'W HATHRO; but on the other hand i'w car, i'w tad (no mutation), therefore i'w athro (no aspiration) -- seem to point both ways. I'd be grateful for any information anyone can give. ************************ Nigel Love Linguistics Cape Town NLOVE@BEATTIE.UCT.AC.ZA ************************