> I assume you're talking about the 1588 Bible, since it does follow the pattern > you describe. I am more familiar with it than with the 1988 Bible, so I don't > know how the latter transliterates these names. As given (i.e. no change); I took the examples from the 1988 translation > From the examples you give, the division does seem to be between Old and New > Testament, but if I recall correctly, there are counter-examples. The name > Joseph appears in both Old and New, but the one probably influences the other. > Also, isn't the book called Jude in English Jwdas in Welsh? > > I suspect the division is more between names in the original languages. Hebrew > names got J's in them, while Greek or Hellenized names took an I. > > > As for Caersalem, does anyone, when not singing hymns, actually say 'Caersalem?' > > > 2. Some biblical names which in English begin with J > have I in Welsh (e.g. Iago, Iesu, Ioan), but others have J > (Jeremia, Job, Josua). What principle is at work here (is it 'I' > in the New Testament, 'J' in the Old)? Have the J-forms always > had J, and how is it pronounced? > > The Bible says 'Jerwsalem', the dictionary 'Caersalem'. Is this > the same kind of distinction that we have in English between > 'Israelite' (member of an ancient tribe) and 'Israeli' (citizen > of a modern state)? ************************ Nigel Love Linguistics Cape Town NLOVE@BEATTIE.UCT.AC.ZA ************************