( > Oes gynnoch chi blant? ) > and ( > Oes plant 'da chi? ) > ( > Which on is more "correct"? Is one more indicative of a learner than the ) > other? ( ... ) The posh written forms are: "a oes plant gennych chwi?" or "a oes ( gennych chwi blant?". No, there's a dialect difference too: they really do mean 'gyda', not 'gennych' in those parts of Wales where the Wenglish sometimes stretches to constructions like 'is there children with you?' for 'do you have children?'. "Oes plant (gy)da chi?' is southern; you could ask it in North Welsh too (although, presumably "efo" would be more natural for some of us than "gyda") but it would have a sense of "are there children (e.g. in the room) with you?" Presumably southerners who want to ask such questions have to put in the "... there", "... today", "... in the room" to disambiguate. The spelling of parts of "gan", like "gynnoch", with a -y- is something we used to be told off about years ago in school. We were discouraged from pronouncing it that way too: like dropping haitches in English. I think it may be associated in my mind with being told off for constructions like "fi gyn" (for "mae gennyf"). To answer the question about correctness, there is regretably a slight inferiority complex in southern speakers who perceive the northern dialects as more standard. They get awfully worked up about it sometimes. They think we're looking down our noses at them because we seem to be talking posh. There ought not to be any question of one being "more correct" than the other. Each is right in its context. g