[percy-l] Re: transcendence and immanence

From: Rhonda McDonnell (rhonda_mcdonnell@hotmail.com)
Date: Fri Mar 22 2002 - 00:30:12 EST


From what I've figured out, the answer to your question is no -- by the
later part of Percy's life he was frustrated with the semiotics folks --he
said they all had their heads up their asses, or something to that effect.
What happened with semiotics was the bastardization of Peirce's semeiotic,
something Dr. Ketner can explain much more eloquently than I can. But, if I
have it right, the problem with semiotics, if you come at it from a Peirce
perspective, is that thirdness or triadic communication is dropped out of
the formula. Of course for Peirce and Percy, thirdness is what it's all
about, hence the conflict rather than congruence.

Rhonda McDonnell

>From: rflynn@GUILFORD.EDU
>Reply-To: "Percy-L: Literary and Philosophical Discussion"
><percy-l@franklin.oit.unc.edu>
>To: "Percy-L: Literary and Philosophical Discussion"
><percy-l@franklin.oit.unc.edu>
>Subject: [percy-l] Re: transcendence and immanence
>Date: Tue, 19 Mar 2002 12:22:45 -0500
>
>
>Thanks folks. This will help me out some. I just finished a first draft of
>the thesis and will wrap it up by late April. Here's another thing that I'd
>like some help on. Do Lacan's theory of language and the Peirce-Percy
>theory have much in common? I've read some things about Lacan's theory, but
>am too strapped for time, and probably too dumb, to go and read a bunch of
>Lacan. What I have read, though, seems to be similar to the semiotic theory
>in Lost in the Cosmos. Help...please.
>
>
>--
>An archive of all list discussion is available at
><http://www.ibiblio.org/wpercy/hypermail>.
>Visit the Walker Percy Project at <http://www.ibiblio.org/wpercy>.

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