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- September 15th, 2014, 1:50 pm
- Forum: Septuagint and Pseudepigrapha
- Topic: εξιλάσομαι
- Replies: 4
- Views: 2647
εξιλάσομαι
Why is the Hebrew word "Kaphar" translated as εξιλάσομαι G1837.2 in the Septuagint? I don't see the connection between "covering" and "echo"?