Search found 2071 matches
- October 13th, 2021, 6:19 am
- Forum: Learning Paradigms
- Topic: 2nd Person Plural Pronouns
- Replies: 6
- Views: 5491
Re: 2nd Person Plural Pronouns
Hello, In the paradigm for εἰμί Bill Mounce says that the second person plural means "you" but that it is a plural "you" equivalent to "thou or ya'll". Is this the case for ὑμεις and ὑμας as well? Just for the record, thou is second person singular subject, thee is the...
- October 8th, 2021, 9:33 am
- Forum: Beginners Forum
- Topic: Middle vs. passive voice
- Replies: 2
- Views: 2289
Re: Middle vs. passive voice
Welcome to B-Greek, Jack. It depends on the tense. present, imperfect and perfect use the same forms for both middle and passive. The future and aorist use different forms. παρεδίδετο is imperfect, and so has the same form for both. 1) The reflexive middle is not all that common even in classical Gr...
- October 6th, 2021, 1:44 pm
- Forum: Greek Language and Linguistics
- Topic: εφεροσαν
- Replies: 7
- Views: 3911
Re: εφεροσαν
WH App.2 172 note that “in a few other places forms in -οσαν [impf. or aor.] have some Western attestation”—thus Mk 1:32 ἐφέροσαν, 6:14 ἐλέγοσαν (Scrivener). Instances for the strong aorist are discussed below, § 88 (p. 209). Thackeray 213 f. observes that “these forms in -οσαν are exceedingly frequ...
- October 6th, 2021, 1:34 pm
- Forum: Greek Language and Linguistics
- Topic: εφεροσαν
- Replies: 7
- Views: 3911
Re: εφεροσαν
The stem-argument I understand, but why the Ending with -σα- in an Imperfect? Good question. My guess is that at least in some register of the language (maybe locally conditioned) that there was a mix and match of tense markers that didn't really rise to any literary level. But that's only a guess,...
- October 6th, 2021, 9:58 am
- Forum: Greek Language and Linguistics
- Topic: εφεροσαν
- Replies: 7
- Views: 3911
Re: εφεροσαν
Since it's built on the first principal part (the present stem), I would take it as an imperfect.
- October 3rd, 2021, 9:19 am
- Forum: Beginners Forum
- Topic: Romans 14:14
- Replies: 10
- Views: 5068
Re: Romans 14:14
as a matter of curiosity, when did the term "κοινη" come into use to indicate the language? The earliest I could find was Dionysius of Halicarnassus: ἡ δὲ λέξις, ᾗ κέχρηται, τοιοῦτόν τινα χαρακτῆρα ἔχει. καθαρὰ μέν ἐστιν οὐχ ἧττον τῆς Λυσίου καὶ οὐδὲν εἰκῇ τιθεῖσα ὄνομα τήν τε διάλεκτον ἀ...
- October 2nd, 2021, 9:06 am
- Forum: Grammar Questions
- Topic: Adjective vs. Noun
- Replies: 6
- Views: 3912
Re: Adjective vs. Noun
Good morning, LearningGreek (would you mind sharing an actual name for us?). The definition of noun I learned was a word referring to person, place, thing or idea/abstract notion. Thus words such as "love" or "time" even though you can't touch or see them are still considered nou...
- October 1st, 2021, 10:55 pm
- Forum: Introductions
- Topic: Hello
- Replies: 1
- Views: 5301
Re: Hello
Welcome, James. Feel free to jump into any discussion or ask any questions. The water here is good and warm at all times.
- October 1st, 2021, 2:22 pm
- Forum: Beginners Forum
- Topic: Romans 14:14
- Replies: 10
- Views: 5068
Re: Romans 14:14
κοινός, like any other good Greek word (and they are all good) has a range of usage and meaning, which can change diachronically. I suspect for most of the time period that the LXX was being composed, It was not the best lexical choice for "unclean." 1 Macc was however composed in Greek an...
- September 27th, 2021, 10:45 am
- Forum: Cool Stuff
- Topic: Found at the Antigone Site
- Replies: 0
- Views: 9361
Found at the Antigone Site
The folks at the online classics journal Antigone have put together a series of free online resources. Scroll down to find the Greek:
https://antigonejournal.com/helps/
https://antigonejournal.com/helps/