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by Bill Ross
December 5th, 2020, 10:51 am
Forum: New Testament
Topic: Is this a legitimate translation of Hebrews 1:8?
Replies: 20
Views: 724

Re: Is this a legitimate translation of Hebrews 1:8?

So basically, in Koine, the "nominative" form can equally be nominative, adjective and vocative, with context being necessary in order to identify which is intended? @Bill - I'm so sorry. I meant to quote your message, but I edited it by mistake. I deleted the rest of your message about Ra...
by Bill Ross
December 5th, 2020, 2:14 am
Forum: New Testament
Topic: Is this a legitimate translation of Hebrews 1:8?
Replies: 20
Views: 724

Re: Is this a legitimate translation of Hebrews 1:8?

Well, when you put it that way, isn't the vocative a given for any salutation? Should we be considering why this might or might not be a salutation?
by Bill Ross
December 4th, 2020, 9:15 pm
Forum: New Testament
Topic: Is this a legitimate translation of Hebrews 1:8?
Replies: 20
Views: 724

Re: Is this a legitimate translation of Hebrews 1:8?

Are you saying that if it has the article then it must be vocative even in the nominative? It couldn't have an implied estin or be an adjective?
by Bill Ross
December 4th, 2020, 4:58 pm
Forum: New Testament
Topic: In John 17:3, are these two variants identical in meaning?
Replies: 6
Views: 210

Re: In John 17:3, are these two variants identical in meaning?

So would it be fair to say that neither rendering, cause or effect, can be ruled out? Our best bet then being to look for contextual clues? IE: The grammar itself doesn't lean either way?
by Bill Ross
December 4th, 2020, 3:55 pm
Forum: New Testament
Topic: In John 17:3, are these two variants identical in meaning?
Replies: 6
Views: 210

In John 17:3, are these two variants identical in meaning?

How should the variants be rendered? As cause or effect?: ΚΑΤΑ ΙΩΑΝΝΗΝ 17:3 Greek NT: Westcott and Hort / [NA27 and UBS4 variants] αὕτη δέ ἐστιν ἡ αἰώνιος ζωὴ ἵνα γινώσκωσι / γινώσκωσιν σὲ τὸν μόνον ἀληθινὸν θεὸν καὶ ὃν ἀπέστειλας Ἰησοῦν Χριστόν. I notice that the NLT has a causative reading: [Jhn 1...
by Bill Ross
December 3rd, 2020, 2:17 pm
Forum: New Testament
Topic: Is this a legitimate translation of Hebrews 1:8?
Replies: 20
Views: 724

Is this a legitimate translation of Hebrews 1:8?

[Heb 1:8 MGNT] (8) πρὸς δὲ τὸν υἱόν ὁ θρόνος σου ὁ θεός εἰς τὸν αἰῶνα τοῦ αἰῶνος καὶ ἡ ῥάβδος τῆς εὐθύτητος ῥάβδος τῆς βασιλείας σου "your divine throne" This is normally translated as a vocative, and I realize that the vocative and the nominative can share the same form in Classical Gree...
by Bill Ross
November 29th, 2020, 8:21 pm
Forum: Other
Topic: Why is λόγος consistently translated as "word"?
Replies: 29
Views: 16908

Re: Why is λόγος consistently translated as "word"?

Hi Jeffrey. It seems to me that "have a word" is an idiom, so not really intrinsic to the word "word" itself, but I catch the drift. But what I thought was significant in the article is that Jerome himself was exasperated by not having the right "word" at his disposal t...
by Bill Ross
November 27th, 2020, 9:30 pm
Forum: New Testament
Topic: Romans 1:20
Replies: 16
Views: 576

Re: Romans 1:20

It seems to me that if you want to understand the NT you can probably well dispense with the middle man (Kant) and go directly to Plato. Or perhaps even better, Jewishly digested Plato, Philo. Either way, it is the fundamental proposition of Plato that the true god is not directly knowable, observab...
by Bill Ross
November 27th, 2020, 6:48 pm
Forum: Other
Topic: Why is λόγος consistently translated as "word"?
Replies: 29
Views: 16908

Re: Why is λόγος consistently translated as "word"?

I just stumbled upon this extremely relevant and informative article:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Logos

It is a must read!
by Bill Ross
October 30th, 2020, 4:00 pm
Forum: What does this text mean?
Topic: In John 20:31 variants, is the difference between πιστεύσητε and πιστεύητε significant?
Replies: 12
Views: 588

Re: In John 20:31 variants, is the difference between πιστεύσητε and πιστεύητε significant?

Okay, if I'm following this, then manuscript evidence aside, the aorist (minority witness) seems a more contextually appropriate, or at least obvious, reading, yes?

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