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the meaning of the aorist imperative in Matt. 6: 10//Lk. 11:
Posted: July 22nd, 2014, 3:08 pm
by jgibson000
As many here know, J. Jeremias and others have argued that the use of the aorist imperative form of the verb “to come” in the Kingdom petition in the Lord's Prayer (Matt. 6:10//Lk. 11:2) makes that petition a call for a once-only event that affects all history. But am I right in thinking, on the basis of what I believe Buist Fanning implies when he notes (on p. 97 of his Verbal Aspect in New Testament Greek) that "The aorist presents an occurrence in summary, viewed as a whole from the outside, with no regard for the internal make up of the occurrence", that the aorist imperative in a request does not signify the asking for something that is to happen “once-only”, but that something specific should happen in a specific situation?
Jeffrey
Re: the meaning of the aorist imperative in Matt. 6: 10//Lk.
Posted: July 22nd, 2014, 4:17 pm
by Stirling Bartholomew
jgibson000 wrote: the aorist imperative in a request does not signify the asking for something that is to happen “once-only”, but that something specific should happen in a specific situation?
Jeffrey,
Yes, that is is my understanding of the aorist imperative. I may have read it in B, Fanning but it was a long time ago.
CSB
Re: the meaning of the aorist imperative in Matt. 6: 10//Lk.
Posted: July 22nd, 2014, 5:51 pm
by Jonathan Robie
jgibson000 wrote:As many here know, J. Jeremias and others have argued that the use of the aorist imperative form of the verb “to come” in the Kingdom petition in the Lord's Prayer (Matt. 6:10//Lk. 11:2) makes that petition a call for a once-only event that affects all history.
Is he saying that's true for all the aorist imperatives in this prayer, or just the 3rd singular aorist passives?
Πάτερ ἡμῶν ὁ ἐν τοῖς οὐρανοῖς·
ἁγιασθήτω τὸ ὄνομά σου,
ἐλθέτω ἡ βασιλεία σου,
γενηθήτω τὸ θέλημά σου, ὡς ἐν οὐρανῷ καὶ ἐπὶ γῆς·
τὸν ἄρτον ἡμῶν τὸν ἐπιούσιον
δὸς ἡμῖν σήμερον·
καὶ
ἄφες ἡμῖν τὰ ὀφειλήματα ἡμῶν, ὡς καὶ ἡμεῖς ἀφήκαμεν τοῖς ὀφειλέταις ἡμῶν·
καὶ μὴ
εἰσενέγκῃς ἡμᾶς εἰς πειρασμόν, ἀλλὰ
ῥῦσαι ἡμᾶς ἀπὸ τοῦ πονηροῦ.
I suspect I'm with Fanning on this one.
But I'm curious about how Jeremias interprets this passage. If he's saying this is true only for the
3d singular aorist passive imperative, then ἁγιασθήτω, ἐλθέτω, and ἐλθέτω are all one time events. If he's saying this is true for the
2d singular aorist active imperative, then δὸς, ἄφες, and ῥῦσαι are all one-time events as well, which seems rather implausible. How does he feel about
2d singular aorist subjunctive?
Re: the meaning of the aorist imperative in Matt. 6: 10//Lk.
Posted: July 23rd, 2014, 7:07 am
by Barry Hofstetter
Jeremias may be right, but if so, it is based on context and other broader hermeneutical considerations and not the simple use of the aorist imperative. I'm with Stirling on this one. I have actually never read Fanning

but I have been using this definition of the use of the aorist imperative since college or graduate school in the late 70's early 80's, where I'm sure I got it from a knowledgeable professor or two... That's one aspect of it, anyway.
