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Where is the sigma in διδάσκειν from?

Posted: February 20th, 2016, 6:25 am
by Stephen Hughes
Is there an explanation from historical linguistic or comparative philology for the sigma in the present of διδάσκειν / διδάξαι ?

Re: Where is the sigma in διδάσκειν from?

Posted: February 20th, 2016, 7:24 am
by cwconrad
Stephen Hughes wrote:Is there an explanation from historical linguistic or comparative philology for the sigma in the present of διδάσκειν / διδάξαι ?
Root διδαχ- + ιnceptive formative in -σκ-ο/ε- with simplification of the consonant sequence acc. to rules
cf. Smyth, §526.

Re: Where is the sigma in διδάσκειν from?

Posted: February 20th, 2016, 9:22 am
by Stephen Hughes
Presumably the word at the start of the derivational morpholgy is δάω.

How did the χ get in and why is the reduplication and σκ both retained in the derived nominal forms διδάσκαλος / διδαχή etc. ?

[My guess is that those modifications to the verb marked that shift the meaning from "learn" to "teach" and so they needed to be retained.]

Re: Where is the sigma in διδάσκειν from?

Posted: February 20th, 2016, 2:31 pm
by cwconrad
Stephen Hughes wrote:Presumably the word at the start of the derivational morpholgy is δάω.

How did the χ get in and why is the reduplication and σκ both retained in the derived nominal forms διδάσκαλος / διδαχή etc. ?

[My guess is that those modifications to the verb marked that shift the meaning from "learn" to "teach" and so they needed to be retained.]
Linkage of the root of διδάσκειν to δα- is not something that I recognize (is it more than guesswork?). If I recall rightly, I have seen it linked to the root of δείκνύναι/δεῖξαι, but I wouldn't vouch for it. The guttural seems to belong to the root.

Re: Where is the sigma in διδάσκειν from?

Posted: February 20th, 2016, 7:12 pm
by Stephen Hughes
cwconrad wrote:Linkage of the root of διδάσκειν to δα- is not something that I recognize (is it more than guesswork?).
Perhaps it is, or perhaps assumption.

I remember seeing it mentioned elsewhere, but can't remember where, and the LSJ entry for δάω accepts that sort of pedigree for the word in post Homeric Greek. That is not illogical given that μιμνῄσκω follows the same pattern of present formation, and that δίδωμι, ἵστημι, and ἀποθνῄσκω contain elements of it. The different thing is that διδάσκειν forms its future and aorist stems based on the derived present stem, rather than reverting to the simple root δα- like μιμνῄσκω does. Is there a reason for the addition of -σκ-, rather than -ισκ-?

Re: Where is the sigma in διδάσκειν from?

Posted: February 21st, 2016, 1:01 am
by Stephen Carlson
Here is Beekes's analysis of the etymology of διδάσκειν:
Beekes 2010:330 wrote:Reduplicated σκ-present of δαῆναι with factitive meaning < *δαh-ῆναι. Since the root was obscured, the reduplication (and partly also the σκ-suffIx) spread to the non-presentic forms. See Debrunner 1937: 251ff.

Re: Where is the sigma in διδάσκειν from?

Posted: February 21st, 2016, 10:22 am
by Stephen Hughes
Within that analysis διδαχή seems different. How is the chi a formative unit in διδαχή in Breekes's analysis?

Re: Where is the sigma in διδάσκειν from?

Posted: February 21st, 2016, 10:33 am
by cwconrad
Stephen Hughes wrote:Within that analysis διδαχή seems different. How is the chi a formative unit in διδαχή in Breekes's analysis?
What's odd here is the persistence of boththe δι- reduplication throughout the entire conjugation of the verb and the guttural -κ/γ/χ- with the δα- root. Chantraine's older etymological dictionary (1970) is in agreement with Beekes' account and points to an article by Debrunner on the matter that might be interesting to look at: it's in a volume entitled Mélanges Boisac 1, 251-256. Suggestions of linkage with Latin docere and discere (di-dc-sc-) don't seem to be convincing.

Re: Where is the sigma in διδάσκειν from?

Posted: February 21st, 2016, 12:17 pm
by Stephen Hughes
Is the -sc- in Latin part of derivational morphology (as in Koine) or part of inflectional pattern (as Homer uses it)?

Re: Where is the sigma in διδάσκειν from?

Posted: February 21st, 2016, 4:39 pm
by cwconrad
Stephen Hughes wrote:Is the -sc- in Latin part of derivational morphology (as in Koine) or part of inflectional pattern (as Homer uses it)?
It's an iterative/durative/inchoative verbal formative. Compare Lat. no-sc-ere with Gr. γι(γ(νώ-σκ-ειν; Lat. cre-sc-ere "grow", Lat. albe-sc-ere "become white", etc.