Question about the aorist middle in Mark 1:15
Posted: November 14th, 2025, 5:01 am
Hello everyone,
I'm new to the forum and to the study of Biblical Greek, and I’m very glad to join this community. I’ve been working through some passages in the Gospel of Mark, and I encountered something in Mark 1:15 that I would appreciate some clarification on.
The verb πιστεύετε is straightforward, but I’m particularly curious about the use of μετανοεῖτε and how it relates syntactically and semantically to the proclamation “πεπλήρωται ὁ καιρὸς.”
My question is mainly this:
Is there any nuance in the present imperative forms here (μετανοεῖτε, πιστεύετε) that might suggest an ongoing attitude rather than a decisive initial act?
I’ve read differing opinions in some grammars, but I’d love to hear how more experienced readers of the Greek NT understand the force of the present imperative in this context.
Thank you in advance for any insight, and I look forward to learning from you all!
I'm new to the forum and to the study of Biblical Greek, and I’m very glad to join this community. I’ve been working through some passages in the Gospel of Mark, and I encountered something in Mark 1:15 that I would appreciate some clarification on.
The verb πιστεύετε is straightforward, but I’m particularly curious about the use of μετανοεῖτε and how it relates syntactically and semantically to the proclamation “πεπλήρωται ὁ καιρὸς.”
My question is mainly this:
Is there any nuance in the present imperative forms here (μετανοεῖτε, πιστεύετε) that might suggest an ongoing attitude rather than a decisive initial act?
I’ve read differing opinions in some grammars, but I’d love to hear how more experienced readers of the Greek NT understand the force of the present imperative in this context.
Thank you in advance for any insight, and I look forward to learning from you all!