κλῆσις: Calling or Occupation?
Posted: September 18th, 2011, 8:16 am
Suzanne McCarthy has an interesting new blog entry at BLT: Not Just a Sandwich (Bible, Literature, Translation) on one of those Biblical texts that we've always assumed we understood without having to think about what it says.
http://bltnotjustasandwich.com/2011/09/ ... ccupation/
1 Cor 7:20 ἕκαστος ἐν τῇ κλήσει ᾗ ἐκλήθη, ἐν ταύτῃ μενέτω.
The question she raises is: Is it in fact the case that the understanding of the Greek word here has been influenced by a questionable translator’s interpretation of what that word actually means? She asks further whether it isn’t the case that even BDAG has been influenced by the translators in its entry on κλῆσις. The discussion is noteworthy, I think, with respect both to lexicography and the theory, practice, and tradition of Biblical translation.
http://bltnotjustasandwich.com/2011/09/ ... ccupation/
1 Cor 7:20 ἕκαστος ἐν τῇ κλήσει ᾗ ἐκλήθη, ἐν ταύτῃ μενέτω.
The question she raises is: Is it in fact the case that the understanding of the Greek word here has been influenced by a questionable translator’s interpretation of what that word actually means? She asks further whether it isn’t the case that even BDAG has been influenced by the translators in its entry on κλῆσις. The discussion is noteworthy, I think, with respect both to lexicography and the theory, practice, and tradition of Biblical translation.