ἡ δὲ ἐπὶ τῷ λόγῳ διεταράχθη καὶ διελογίζετο ποταπὸς εἴη ὁ ἀσπασμὸς οὗτος. Luke 1:29
Why is ὁ ἀσπασμὸς οὗτος in the nominative? Is it because it is an indirect quotation of Mary's thoughts? If so, is this the standard way cases are treated in indirect quotations (i.e., cases are preserved unchanged)?
Luke 1:29 Why Nominative?
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Barry Hofstetter
Re: Luke 1:29 Why Nominative?
It's the subject of the verb εἰη in, as you observe, an indirect question, and so naturally takes the nominative. A noun in an indirect question will take the appropriate case according to its grammatical usage in its clause.MechPebbles wrote: ↑July 20th, 2020, 1:58 am ἡ δὲ ἐπὶ τῷ λόγῳ διεταράχθη καὶ διελογίζετο ποταπὸς εἴη ὁ ἀσπασμὸς οὗτος. Luke 1:29
Why is ὁ ἀσπασμὸς οὗτος in the nominative? Is it because it is an indirect quotation of Mary's thoughts? If so, is this the standard way cases are treated in indirect quotations (i.e., cases are preserved unchanged)?