Luke 1:29 Why Nominative?
Posted: July 20th, 2020, 1:58 am
ἡ δὲ ἐπὶ τῷ λόγῳ διεταράχθη καὶ διελογίζετο ποταπὸς εἴη ὁ ἀσπασμὸς οὗτος. Luke 1:29
Why is ὁ ἀσπασμὸς οὗτος in the nominative? Is it because it is an indirect quotation of Mary's thoughts? If so, is this the standard way cases are treated in indirect quotations (i.e., cases are preserved unchanged)?
Why is ὁ ἀσπασμὸς οὗτος in the nominative? Is it because it is an indirect quotation of Mary's thoughts? If so, is this the standard way cases are treated in indirect quotations (i.e., cases are preserved unchanged)?