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why use the aorist

Posted: May 10th, 2013, 7:44 am
by Allan Rumsch
I thought I had a good understanding of this weeks gospel selection, but when I checked my translation of John 17: 25 I seem to have missed something: πάτερ δίκαιε, καὶ ὁ κόσμος σε οὐκ ἔγνω, ἐγὼ δέ σε ἔγνων, καὶ οὗτοι ἔγνωσαν ὅτι σύ με ἀπέστειλας, Most translations translate ἔγνω and ἔγνων and ἔγνωσαν as present tense verbs. Now I understand that the aorist may not be in the past, but that it reflects a singular occurence. But even so, it seems that this is a continuing state of knowing and not knowing. What about the aorist am I missing here?

Re: why use the aorist

Posted: May 10th, 2013, 8:13 am
by Stephen Carlson
The verb γνῶναι (aorist active infinitive of γίνωσκω) is more like "get to know" than just plain "know." It does not designate a state of knowing so much as a change into a state of knowing. And that meaning is very appropriate for an aorist.