G2863 - κομάω in the context of 1 Corinthians 11:2-16

How do I work out the meaning of a Greek text? How can I best understand the forms and vocabulary in this particular text?
Forum rules
This is a beginner's forum - see the Koine Greek forum for more advanced discussion of Greek texts. Please quote the Greek text you are discussing directly in your post if it is reasonably short - do not ask people to look it up.

When answering questions in this forum, keep it simple, and aim your responses to the level of the person asking the question.
Post Reply
SomeBadHatHarry
Posts: 1
Joined: August 15th, 2025, 6:53 pm

G2863 - κομάω in the context of 1 Corinthians 11:2-16

Post by SomeBadHatHarry »

First of all, thank you in advance for any insights you're able to provide, I appreciate it.
Second of all, please forgive me if I paste anything wrong, this is my first time posting.
The text:
1Co 11:14  η ουδε αυτη η φυσις διδασκει υμας οτι ανηρ μεν εαν κομα ατιμια αυτω εστιν
1Co 11:15  γυνη δε εαν κομα δοξα αυτη εστιν οτι η κομη αντι περιβολαιου δεδοται αυτη

1Co 11:14  Does not even nature itself teach you that if a man has long hair, it is a dishonor to him? 
1Co 11:15  But if a woman has long hair, it is a glory to her; for her hair is given to her for a covering. 

I have seen some different opinions on how this should be translated into English. One excerpt I found is:
"Present tense, subjunctive mood – stressing linear action. Literally: “If a woman keeps on growing her hair long, it is a glory to her.”"

I'm seeking clarity on this.
1. Is this the correct tense and mood?
2. If it is the correct tense and mood, does that mean "stressing linear action" is correct?
3. If 1 and 2 are correct, does the translation that follows make the meaning of this word more clear than the NKJV translation?
4. (less relevant to this text, and I don't mind if it gets answered or not, but) Are there other words used in this section (1 Corinthians 11:2-16) which would more easily convey the message that a woman should not shorten her hair in any way, if that was the intent of this passage?

Here's the rest of the passage for reference:
1Co 11:2  επαινω δε υμας αδελφοι οτι παντα μου μεμνησθε και καθως παρεδωκα υμιν τας παραδοσεις κατεχετε
1Co 11:3  θελω δε υμας ειδεναι οτι παντος ανδρος η κεφαλη ο χριστος εστιν κεφαλη δε γυναικος ο ανηρ κεφαλη δε χριστου ο θεος
1Co 11:4  πας ανηρ προσευχομενος η προφητευων κατα κεφαλης εχων καταισχυνει την κεφαλην αυτου
1Co 11:5  πασα δε γυνη προσευχομενη η προφητευουσα ακατακαλυπτω τη κεφαλη καταισχυνει την κεφαλην εαυτης εν γαρ εστιν και το αυτο τη εξυρημενη
1Co 11:6  ει γαρ ου κατακαλυπτεται γυνη και κειρασθω ει δε αισχρον γυναικι το κειρασθαι η ξυρασθαι κατακαλυπτεσθω
1Co 11:7  ανηρ μεν γαρ ουκ οφειλει κατακαλυπτεσθαι την κεφαλην εικων και δοξα θεου υπαρχων γυνη δε δοξα ανδρος εστιν
1Co 11:8  ου γαρ εστιν ανηρ εκ γυναικος αλλα γυνη εξ ανδρος
1Co 11:9  και γαρ ουκ εκτισθη ανηρ δια την γυναικα αλλα γυνη δια τον ανδρα
1Co 11:10  δια τουτο οφειλει η γυνη εξουσιαν εχειν επι της κεφαλης δια τους αγγελους
1Co 11:11  πλην ουτε ανηρ χωρις γυναικος ουτε γυνη χωρις ανδρος εν κυριω
1Co 11:12  ωσπερ γαρ η γυνη εκ του ανδρος ουτως και ο ανηρ δια της γυναικος τα δε παντα εκ του θεου
1Co 11:13  εν υμιν αυτοις κρινατε πρεπον εστιν γυναικα ακατακαλυπτον τω θεω προσευχεσθαι
1Co 11:14  η ουδε αυτη η φυσις διδασκει υμας οτι ανηρ μεν εαν κομα ατιμια αυτω εστιν
1Co 11:15  γυνη δε εαν κομα δοξα αυτη εστιν οτι η κομη αντι περιβολαιου δεδοται αυτη
1Co 11:16  ει δε τις δοκει φιλονεικος ειναι ημεις τοιαυτην συνηθειαν ουκ εχομεν ουδε αι εκκλησιαι του θεου
Eeli Kaikkonen
Posts: 624
Joined: June 2nd, 2011, 7:49 am
Location: Finland
Contact:

Re: G2863 - κομάω in the context of 1 Corinthians 11:2-16

Post by Eeli Kaikkonen »

Answers to numbered questions.

1. Yes, but if you are even semi-serious with Greek, you should at least learn to find it yourself in some online of offline Bible reading application, for PC or mobile phone. There are many of them, free, with Greek parsing.

2. It's not correct. It doesn't "stress" linear action. Using the present tense here is just a side effect of how the event (letting hair grow, or "having long hear" as it also can be interpreted) is naturally understood, without an endpoint. In my opinion aorist could be used here, and it would mean more like "grow long hair (until it's long)". But saying that the present tense "stresses" linear or continuing action is too much said. The proposed translation isn't very good because it stresses "keeping on" in a way the original text just doesn't do. What's more, the translation actually seems combine aoristic viewpoint with the present tense. What does it mean to "keep growing long"? Until it's long (which would be aoristic)? Or keep growing indefinitely, even when it's already long (like "keep growing and growing" which would be compatible with the imperfective present tense)? Therefore the translation is clumsy, and I would rather use the meaning "have long hair" here which seems to be the natural interpretation in the larger context. It doesn't speak about "growing" at all. And because it means "have", it's natural to use the present tense because aorist would include an endpoint of the event in one way or the other.

In general, it's a common mistake to reduce grammatical forms to simple isolated meanings and then take it as an important point of the text. Rather, language is about choice, but very often the choice is only natural and doesn't intend to stress anything special in the context and is even dictated by the context. If the other option would be strange, unnatural or misleading, there's no real choice at all. Then the only option is neutral.

3. Don't get stuck in one translation, use several modern academic translations, and remember that when they deviate, there are usually good reasons for it and it could be argued in more than one way. As far as translation goes, any random gem generator hardly can produce better translations than the committees of for example NKJV, NIV, ESV, CSB, NET, NRSV etc. Exegetical commentaries often give the options and the reasoning, and if a seeming option isn't mentioned in a couple of comprehensive commentaries, it's hardly an option, or at least it doesn't add anything important.

But of course it's even better to learn Greek so that you can actually understand what they say, and possibly judge yourself. This forum is for those who want and try to learn.

4. I don't quite understand the question. "Not shorten in any way" isn't said in the context, unless you want to interpret v. 6 that way, but in my opinion that must be interpreted in the cultural context and wouldn't be based on the meaning of the used words, which rather mean shave or shear (to cut off or very short). This whole passage is difficult to understand and has been interpreted in several ways, as you probably know, and the problem can't be solved linguistically, although of course you have to be able to understand the original text as exactly as possible to be able to argue about the cultural context. There certainly are some very important words here (the most debated is probably κεφαλη).
Post Reply

Return to “What does this text mean?”