In John 1:14, why is the deponent verb ἐγένετο translated as if passive?

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Bill Ross
Posts: 244
Joined: August 12th, 2012, 6:26 pm

In John 1:14, why is the deponent verb ἐγένετο translated as if passive?

Post by Bill Ross »

[Jhn 1:14 MGNT] (14) καὶ ὁ λόγος σὰρξ ἐγένετο καὶ ἐσκήνωσεν ἐν ἡμῖν καὶ ἐθεασάμεθα τὴν δόξαν αὐτοῦ δόξαν ὡς μονογενοῦς παρὰ πατρός πλήρης χάριτος καὶ ἀληθείας
IE: Taking σὰρξ as "flesh":

"the Utterance made flesh and tented [in it]"

Or, taking σὰρξ as "human," might it not be deponent and be read:

"the Utterance made himself to be human" or "the Utterance became human" or something along those lines?
What I lack in youth I make up for in immaturity.
Barry Hofstetter
Posts: 2159
Joined: May 6th, 2011, 1:48 pm

Re: In John 1:14, why is the deponent verb ἐγένετο translated as if passive?

Post by Barry Hofstetter »

Bill, simply looking up γίνομαι in the lexicon would probably answer your question. Most modern translations render it "became." And I wouldn't ever render λόγος as "utterence" in the context of John 1. Our English word "word" much better captures it.
N.E. Barry Hofstetter, M.A., Th.M.
Ph.D. Student U of FL
Instructor of Latin
Jack M. Barrack Hebrew Academy
καὶ σὺ τὸ σὸν ποιήσεις κἀγὼ τὸ ἐμόν. ἆρον τὸ σὸν καὶ ὕπαγε.
Bill Ross
Posts: 244
Joined: August 12th, 2012, 6:26 pm

Re: In John 1:14, why is the deponent verb ἐγένετο translated as if passive?

Post by Bill Ross »

Okay, thanks.
What I lack in youth I make up for in immaturity.
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