Ephesians 1:4 "we are" or "we should be"?

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Brian Phillips
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Joined: August 17th, 2023, 2:19 pm

Ephesians 1:4 "we are" or "we should be"?

Post by Brian Phillips »

In Ephesians 1:4, where do I go (text, tool, resource, or this forum) to find out why most translators translate "εἶναι ἡμᾶς" as "we should be" or "we would be"?

It seems to me the phrase would best be "just as he chose us in him before the foundation of the world, we are holy and blameless in his sight."

“καθὼς ἐξελέξατο ἡμᾶς ἐν αὐτῷ πρὸ καταβολῆς κόσμου εἶναι ἡμᾶς ἁγίους καὶ ἀμώμους κατενώπιον αὐτοῦ ἐν ἀγάπῃ,”
(Ephesians 1:4 GNT28-T)
Kind Regards,
Brian Phillips
Jason Hare
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Location: Tel Aviv, Israel
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Re: Ephesians 1:4 "we are" or "we should be"?

Post by Jason Hare »

lambano wrote: August 17th, 2023, 3:06 pm In Ephesians 1:4, where do I go (text, tool, resource, or this forum) to find out why most translators translate "εἶναι ἡμᾶς" as "we should be" or "we would be"?

It seems to me the phrase would best be "just as he chose us in him before the foundation of the world, we are holy and blameless in his sight."

“καθὼς ἐξελέξατο ἡμᾶς ἐν αὐτῷ πρὸ καταβολῆς κόσμου εἶναι ἡμᾶς ἁγίους καὶ ἀμώμους κατενώπιον αὐτοῦ ἐν ἀγάπῃ,”
(Ephesians 1:4 GNT28-T)
The infinitive shows intention or purpose in this clause. Why did he choose us? He chose us to be holy etc. Another way to express this is with a subjunctive—he chose us that we might / should be. This isn’t odd by any stretch. It certainly doesn't say “we are holy,” which would be in the indicative.
Jason A. Hare
The Hebrew Café
Tel Aviv, Israel
Brian Phillips
Posts: 5
Joined: August 17th, 2023, 2:19 pm

Re: Ephesians 1:4 "we are" or "we should be"?

Post by Brian Phillips »

Jason Hare wrote: August 18th, 2023, 3:31 am
lambano wrote: August 17th, 2023, 3:06 pm In Ephesians 1:4, where do I go (text, tool, resource, or this forum) to find out why most translators translate "εἶναι ἡμᾶς" as "we should be" or "we would be"?

It seems to me the phrase would best be "just as he chose us in him before the foundation of the world, we are holy and blameless in his sight."

“καθὼς ἐξελέξατο ἡμᾶς ἐν αὐτῷ πρὸ καταβολῆς κόσμου εἶναι ἡμᾶς ἁγίους καὶ ἀμώμους κατενώπιον αὐτοῦ ἐν ἀγάπῃ,”
(Ephesians 1:4 GNT28-T)
The infinitive shows intention or purpose in this clause. Why did he choose us? He chose us to be holy etc. Another way to express this is with a subjunctive—he chose us that we might / should be. This isn’t odd by any stretch. It certainly doesn't say “we are holy,” which would be in the indicative.
Okay, thanks. It took me a bit, but that makes sense.
Kind Regards,
Brian Phillips
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