Differences between Heb. 10:7 and Psalm 39(40):7
Posted: September 6th, 2016, 7:02 pm
Hebrews 10:7 "τότε εἶπον· ἰδοὺ ἥκω, ἐν κεφαλίδι βιβλίου γέγραπται περὶ ἐμοῦ, τοῦ ποιῆσαι ὁ θεὸς τὸ θέλημά σου."
Psalm 39/40:7 "τότε εἶπον. ἰδοὺ ἥκω ἐν κεφαλίδι βιβλίου γέγραπται περὶ ἐμοῦ, τοῦ ποιῆσαι τὸ θέλημά σου ὁ Θεός μου ἠβουλήθην
I will probably make a fool of myself here, but why stop now, right? As I see it in Hebrews 10:7, the articular infinitive τοῦ ποιῆσαι is governed by the verb ἤκω rather than γέγραπται in the phrase ἐν κεφαλίδι βιβλίου γέγραπται περὶ ἐμοῦ. Is the vocative ὁ θεὸς "marked?" I would have expected it to be at the end of the phrase τοῦ ποιῆσαι τὸ θέλημά σου. Am I missing something? (I am not a linguist so take it easy on my (mis)use of any of these "terms.")
In Psalm 39:7, I think the initial phrase ἰδοὺ ἥκω stands alone, and the verb ἠβουλήθην governs the articular infinitive τοῦ ποιῆσαι. In this instance I feel that the vocative ὁ Θεός was placed at the end of the phrase τοῦ ποιῆσαι τὸ θέλημά σου to avoid the ambiguity that might result if the sentence read ἰδοὺ ἥκω...ὁ Θεός μου τοῦ ποιῆσαι τὸ θέλημά σου ἠβουλήθην and shouldn't be considered to be in P2 because it clarifies σου. Rather, I take it the whole phrase is fronted before the verb ἠβουλήθην for "emphasis." Is this plausible?
Basically, what are the pragmatic differences between these two passages?
Psalm 39/40:7 "τότε εἶπον. ἰδοὺ ἥκω ἐν κεφαλίδι βιβλίου γέγραπται περὶ ἐμοῦ, τοῦ ποιῆσαι τὸ θέλημά σου ὁ Θεός μου ἠβουλήθην
I will probably make a fool of myself here, but why stop now, right? As I see it in Hebrews 10:7, the articular infinitive τοῦ ποιῆσαι is governed by the verb ἤκω rather than γέγραπται in the phrase ἐν κεφαλίδι βιβλίου γέγραπται περὶ ἐμοῦ. Is the vocative ὁ θεὸς "marked?" I would have expected it to be at the end of the phrase τοῦ ποιῆσαι τὸ θέλημά σου. Am I missing something? (I am not a linguist so take it easy on my (mis)use of any of these "terms.")
In Psalm 39:7, I think the initial phrase ἰδοὺ ἥκω stands alone, and the verb ἠβουλήθην governs the articular infinitive τοῦ ποιῆσαι. In this instance I feel that the vocative ὁ Θεός was placed at the end of the phrase τοῦ ποιῆσαι τὸ θέλημά σου to avoid the ambiguity that might result if the sentence read ἰδοὺ ἥκω...ὁ Θεός μου τοῦ ποιῆσαι τὸ θέλημά σου ἠβουλήθην and shouldn't be considered to be in P2 because it clarifies σου. Rather, I take it the whole phrase is fronted before the verb ἠβουλήθην for "emphasis." Is this plausible?
Basically, what are the pragmatic differences between these two passages?