Acts 10:36

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David Lim
Posts: 901
Joined: June 6th, 2011, 6:55 am

Re: Acts 10:36

Post by David Lim »

Iver Larsen wrote:This seems unlikely to me. It does not fit the grammar nor does it make good sense to me.
Iver, could you kindly explain a little bit more about why you say so? I don't really get you.
Iver Larsen wrote:As I have been reading Robertson some more and thinking through the issue again, I have come back to what I consider the most probable grammatical analysis, but it requires another punctuation than the one suggested by our Greek editors. It is basically the one Stirling quoted from Alford. The verb καταλαμβάνω is a verb of perception which can take two objects for the content. English can do the same as in: "He got/understood/grasped the message that he had to come: His presence was required." It is just that in English I am used to the general descriptive noun coming first and the content clause later. Here we have the content first as a rather long sentence followed by the general noun. Therefore it feels easier in English if we reorder: I have understood the message that God is not a respecter of persons, but that in every nation the one fearing him is acceptable to him.
Now, the benefit and probably purpose of stating the content sentence first is that then it is easier to add a relative clause to the general noun: The message, which God sent to the sons of Israel as he announced peace through Jesus Christ. In this way the author can give more information about where the message came from and who it was directed to. Finally, there is another description of what the message was: He/God is Lord of all. This is a shorter restatement of the content as described in 34b-35.
I also don't quite understand how this proposal works. Are you saying that you take "οτι ..." to be somewhat in apposition to "τον λογον ..."? The English example is not a parallel, because it does not use the conjunction "that". It is not possible to say in English: "He understood that X, Y" with Y being an object.
δαυιδ λιμ
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